Blowin’ in the
wind: dust and fog
The question that I started with was: how does the wind
decrease the concentration of dust particles in the atmosphere? I Googled a bit
but I was unable to find the answer in terms that made sense to me. I’m sure
this question has been done to death by now, but I regret to say I couldn’t
find it. My bad, undoubtedly. Anyway, I tried the simplest approach, and that
is what I have given below – but it got a bit complicated as it progressed.
Still, nowhere as complicated as some computer code written by some group of
atmospheric scientists! Nevertheless, the caveat is that the following analysis
is not peer-reviewed and should be taken (at best) as heuristic.
The assumption, of course, is that the dust is fairly
localized (because the sources are factories or cars in a city), and that the
wind blows in clean air from somewhere else. Also, that the wind is steady, and
blows in a specific direction at a fixed wind speed. So, the dust particles
will only get transported away, from place A to neighbouring place B, but not
dissipated as such (the number density of particles remains the same, only the location changes). A
similar argument applies to fog droplets. This may also apply to fine rain
droplets with a diameter of around 250 microns, as adding a horizontal
component to their velocity, but may be less useful for large raindrops.
Q: How does a free particle in the atmosphere of a given
diameter – in the range 2.5 to 100 microns -
move (horizontally) when the wind
blows horizontally at, say, v = 1 m/s speed? This particle could be a dust
particle, or even a water droplet. The density is assumed to be 1 gm/cc,
although some reports quote higher values of density for dust particles.
Particles of diameter more than 10 microns tend to settle
down to the ground pretty fast, while those whose diameter is less than 10
microns tend to remain suspended in the atmosphere for a significant amount of
time.
Assuming the particle is spherical and has a density rp, its mass is:
m
= rp4pr3/3
and its effective cross-sectional area for the wind is A = pr2(taking into
account the cos(q)
factor).
The force due to the wind is: F = (rav2/2)(A)
where the density of air is ra
= 1.225 kg/m3.
Equating this with F = ma, we can find the acceleration of
the particle:
a
= [3(va)2ra]/[8rrp]
For a 2.5 mm diameter particle,
and assuming a particle density of 1000 kg/m3, and with wind speed va
= 1 m/s, the acceleration is a = 180 m/s2 or about 18 g’s. If this
acceleration were to remain unchanged, the particle would hit sound speed in 2
secs!
Clearly that’s not gonna happen, and to
make sure it doesn’t, we have to drag in Stokes’ law.
The force law then is:
pA
- 6phrv = ma
The terminal velocity (horizontal) will be reached
when acceleration ‘a’ becomes zero:
vT
= [ra(va)2r]/[12h]
which is independent of the density of
the particle rp,
but depends upon its size r!
The viscosity of air is: h = 1.8x10-5
kg/m-sec and the density of air is: ra
= 1.225 kg/m3.
This gives the terminal velocity as 0.014 m/s (0.05 kph).
Which seems to be pretty low!
Note also that smaller particles
have lower terminal velocity, with vT directly proportional to r.
However, Stokes’ law is only
valid if Reynolds number is Re £
1. It is defined as:
Re
= [DrflVrel]/hfl
Where rfl
is the density of the fluid (1.2 kg/m3) and hfl
is its viscosity, D is the diameter of the particle, and Vrel is the
relative velocity of the particle and the fluid (air). In the above case, even
though the terminal velocity of the particle is low (0.014 m/s), the wind-speed
(1 m/s) is higher, and Re is calculated on that basis.
When Re>10 or so the
flow is turbulent, and the drag force is proportional to the square of the
particle velocity vp:
F
= [ra(vp)2CDA]/2
Where CD is
the dimensionless drag coefficient and the fluid density is the air density.
The value of CD for laminar flow (Re<1 approximately="" by:="" given="" is="" o:p="">1>
CD
= 24/Re
For this approximation,
the square law force reduces to Stokes’ law. For a spherical particle, and
large Re, CD = 0.47.
The wind-speed for
which Stokes’ law is valid is shown in the Figure below. The value goes up, as
the particle diameter goes down:
The more general force
equation involving the drag coefficient now becomes:
[ra(va)2A/2]
– [ra(vp)2CDA/2]
= ma
Since most terms cancel
out for a = 0, the terminal particle velocity becomes:
vp
= va/[CD]1/2
According to www.thermopedia.com/content/707
the following expression for the drag coefficient is valid in the range: 0.2
< Re < 2000:
CD
= [21.12/Re] + [6.3/(Re)1/2] + 0.25
which reduces
approximately to the limit 24/Re for low Re, and to 0.47 for high Re.
Note that the terminal velocity of the
particle associated with settling under the action of gravity is given by:
6phrv = rp
[4pr3/3]
g
Which leads to the settling terminal
velocity:
vsT
= [gd2rp]/[18h]
The ratio of the above terminal
velocity to the settling terminal velocity is:
[vT/vsT]
= [3ra(va)2]/[4gdrp]
For a 25 mm diameter particle of
density 1000 kg/m3, the ratio becomes:
[vT/vsT]
= 3.67(va)2
i.e. even for a wind-speed
of 1 m/s, vT > vsT. For a particle of smaller diameter,
the wind-speed needed to exceed the settling speed increases.
An energy argument can be used, an integral of the force law
argument used above, which gives the same result as the force law:
Note the work is done on the particle by drag, so you need
to multiply the air pressure term by the distance (vp dt).
The 1st term is:
[rp(vp)2A/2]
[vpdt]
The drag term is:
[6phrvp] [vpdt]
The inertial term is:
(1/2)[d(m(vp)2/dt](dt)
Removing the common term (vp dt), you get the
equation:
pA
- 6phrvp = m[dvp/dt]
which is the same as the force law case, with Stokes’ law
drag force.
Using the above form of drag coefficient as a function of
Reynolds number, no assumption need be made that Re < 1; that is, we need
not be restricted to the Stokes’ law case, but can do the calculation for the
general case, including both the square law and the linear (Stokes’) law cases.
The calculations become a nuisance to do by hand; so I wrote
a simple BASIC program to do the calculations. Note that since Re is defined as
the relative velocity between the particle and the fluid (the air in the atmosphere),
that needs to be incorporated. First the acceleration is calculated, then the
particle velocity, and then the relative velocity, and then the drag, based on
the Cd that depends on Re.
The end result is as expected: the acceleration starts with a
high value and quickly decreases to zero, while, correspondingly, the velocity
increases exponentially, and then saturates at the terminal velocity. Note that
this is a horizontal terminal velocity, not the vertical terminal velocity that
we are accustomed to calculate, which latter is related to the settling rate of
large diameter particles.
The velocity vs time graph:
From the above two graphs, it is clear that the terminal
velocity is attained within 10 msec (for 250 mm
particles), although this time is shorter for smaller particles.
The plot of vp vs va is next.
Initially a quadratic plot was attempted for 250 mm
particles, and the fit seems ok:
But it isn’t: the extrapolation of the quadratic for zero
wind-speed shows a negative value of the particle velocity, which does not make
sense.
One alternative is to again fit it to a
quadratic, but with the constant term set to zero. This does not give a good
fit, except at some points (not shown). The rigorous way is to use the least
squares errors method with the constraint that the constant term c = 0. I could
not figure that out so I didn’t. Anyway, the expression for the drag coefficient
is not valid for Re < 0.2 so va = vp = 0 is not
workable. So, instead I have fitted a log-log plot to a quadratic as below:
where the v’ denotes log(v), and the number of points
decreases as D decreases, because Re values lower than 0.2 are not considered.
The above graph, and the previous ones, shows something like
a break-even velocity, at which the particle velocity equals the wind velocity:
vp = va. Below this value of vabr, vp <
va; and above it, vp > va.
A concern about the wind blowing the dust or fog away: this
assumes that the wind does not change direction randomly. For example, it went
from North to South at one moment, to South to North the next, the dust or fog
would stay put (on average). But even if the direction of the velocity stays
the same, if the Reynolds number exceeds one, the motion of the particle will
be turbulent (Re is calculated with the relative velocity). Then all bets are
off – the particle could go in any direction, follow a vortex, whatever. Only
in laminar flow (Re < 1), will the motion be straight line (or smoothly
curved). So the above calculation would only yield sensible results for laminar
flow, and that means the wind speed va should be < 0.1 m/s for 250 mm
particles, <1 25="" for="" m="" s="" span="" style="font-family: Symbol; mso-ascii-font-family: Calibri; mso-ascii-theme-font: minor-latin; mso-char-type: symbol; mso-hansi-font-family: Calibri; mso-hansi-theme-font: minor-latin; mso-symbol-font-family: Symbol;">m1>
This argument is similar to that used in clean-room design,
which all use laminar flow – albeit with different Reynolds number value (Retr
= 2000) for transition from laminar to turbulent flow. Anyway, there is an
optimal speed for the unidirectional flow, and it is around 0.3 m/s (60
ft/min). Increasing the speed does not help, as turbulent flow is not efficient
in uniformly removing the dust in the atmosphere.
And this does not even begin to address the other question:
how fast does the wind have to blow to kick up a dust devil or a sand-storm!
That issue is being brushed under the carpet, buried six feet under and
resolutely avoided!
The time taken to move a bunch of particles a distance Dx, would be Dt = Dx/vp. As mentioned above, this assumes that the
dust (or droplets) are localized within this distance Dx, and clean (droplet-free) air
is being brought in by the wind from outside this area.
Suppose we take an area of width 1 km, and va = 1
m/s (3.6 kph), with 25 micron diameter particles, vp = 0.21 m/s, and
it would take 4,673 secs (1.3 hrs) to clear the dust away. With a 10 m/s (36
kph) wind, vp = 4.61 m/s, it would take only 217 secs (3.6 mins). However,
as noted above, for 25 micron diameter particles va = 10 m/s is
probably in the transition zone (1 < Re < 10) between laminar and fully
turbulent flow, so this estimate may be questionable.
Now, let us repeat the calculations for 2.5 micron diameter particles: va = 1 m/s (3.6 kph), vp = 0.0805 m/s, and it
would take 12,422 secs (3.4 hrs) to clear the dust away. Fine particles are
tougher to get rid of! Similarly, with a 10 m/s (36 kph) wind, vp =
2.14 m/s, it would take only 467 secs (7.8 mins). In this case, 2.5 micron diameter particles: va = 10 m/s, is just within the laminar flow regime, and
the calculation is correct.
These calculations assume that we can neglect the time
involved in accelerating the particles, which seems reasonable, if we look at
the ‘a vs t’ and ‘v vs t’ figures plotted earlier (as mentioned above).
Obviously, these calculations are simplistic. You would need
to write computer code to take more realistic scenarios into account. But the
basic idea is probably correct. A low wind speed is insufficient to blow away
fog hanging overhead, but as soon as a brisk wind gets going, the fog quickly
lifts.
Another more quantitative question could be: if I have a
given number density n of dust particles already in the air, and a dust
generating source with a fixed generation rate, s
(units of m-3sec-1), how does the number density change?
The answer is that you would have to solve the continuity equation:
[d(nv)/dx] + [dn/dt]
= s
putting in all the relevant boundary
conditions and taking the nonuniform number density into account.
At a naïve level, for s = 0, the continuity
equation actually is the same as the rough calculation done above to find the Dt from an assumed Dx, in terms of vp.
For laminar flow, if we assume some n(x), with s
= 0, the same ‘shape’ n(x) would only get translated to n(x + vp Dt). If the distance the dust gets moved is Dx/2, probably the value of n drops by 50%. If there is a
dust-generation term, it would have to be added on, at the appropriate value of
x.
And it should be in 3D. Easy to talk
about: a lot of work to actually do it. It ought to be possible to get an idea
of what it looks like by doing a simple 1D case. Some other time!
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